The tenancy agreement stipulated that the tenants should pay in advance but since the beginning of the tenancy in 2010 we have let them pay in arrears as they were on benefits. Can we now ask them to pay in advance or have we set a precedent? The agreement to pay in arrears was made verbally
Changing the Rent (England) | During the Tenancy (England) | England
Tenant paying rent in arrears sets a precedent?
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